Practice targeted AMC-style multiple-choice questions on amlodipine.
A 72-year-old man with a history of hypertension, type 2 diabetes, and chronic kidney disease (CKD) presents to his general practitioner for a routine check-up. His current medications include metformin, insulin glargine, amlodipine, and aspirin. His blood pressure today is 150/90 mmHg. Laboratory results show a serum creatinine of 2.5 mg/dL (baseline 2.0 mg/dL), potassium of 5.4 mEq/L, and a urine albumin-to-creatinine ratio (ACR) of 350 mg/g. The GP decides to add an ACE inhibitor to his medication regimen to help manage his blood pressure and proteinuria. One week later, the patient returns complaining of fatigue and muscle weakness. Repeat laboratory testing reveals a serum creatinine of 3.1 mg/dL and a potassium of 6.2 mEq/L. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient?
A 68-year-old male with a history of hypertension and stable angina is prescribed amlodipine. He returns after two weeks complaining of significant ankle edema. What is the most appropriate initial management step?
A 72-year-old man with a history of hypertension, type 2 diabetes, and chronic kidney disease (CKD) presents to his general practitioner for a routine check-up. His current medications include metformin, insulin, amlodipine, and aspirin. His blood pressure today is 150/90 mmHg. Laboratory results show a serum creatinine of 2.5 mg/dL (221 micromol/L) and a potassium level of 5.4 mEq/L. The GP decides to add an ACE inhibitor to his treatment regimen to help manage his blood pressure and provide renal protection. One week later, the patient returns complaining of fatigue and muscle weakness. Repeat laboratory tests reveal a serum creatinine of 3.1 mg/dL (274 micromol/L) and a potassium level of 6.2 mEq/L. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient?
A 67-year-old man presents to the emergency department with sudden onset of severe headache, nausea, and vomiting. He has a history of hypertension and is currently on amlodipine. On examination, he is drowsy but arousable, with a blood pressure of 210/120 mmHg and a heart rate of 90 bpm. Neurological examination reveals a left-sided hemiparesis and a right-sided facial droop. A CT scan of the head shows a hyperdense lesion in the right basal ganglia with surrounding edema. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial management step?
A 62-year-old man with a history of poorly controlled hypertension and type 2 diabetes mellitus presents to his general practitioner for a routine check-up. His current medications include metformin, gliclazide, and amlodipine. His blood pressure today is 160/95 mmHg. His creatinine is 140 umol/L (previously 110 umol/L). His electrolytes are normal. The GP decides to add an ACE inhibitor to his regimen. Which of the following investigations is MOST important to repeat within 1-2 weeks of commencing the ACE inhibitor?