aneurysm

A 72-year-old woman with a history of well-controlled hypertension presents with sudden-onset headache and vomiting. Neurological exam reveals mild neck stiffness but is otherwise normal. A CT angiogram reveals a posterior communicating artery aneurysm, which was subsequently coiled. The image shows a post-coiling angiogram. 24 hours post-procedure, she develops worsening headache and new-onset right-sided weakness. What is the MOST appropriate next step?

A 68-year-old male presents with worsening headaches and blurred vision. He underwent endovascular coiling for a posterior cerebral artery aneurysm 6 months ago. The attached image was obtained. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A 68-year-old woman with a history of hypertension presents with a severe headache and altered mental status. Aneurysm coiling was performed. The image shows a post-operative angiogram. 6 hours later, she develops a fever of 38.5°C and worsening neurological deficits. What is the MOST likely cause?

A 62-year-old patient presented with a subarachnoid haemorrhage secondary to a ruptured cerebral aneurysm and underwent endovascular coiling. They have recovered well and are on routine follow-up. The image shows a recent angiogram performed as part of their surveillance. Considering the findings, what is the MOST appropriate next step in this patient's management?

A 68-year-old woman with a history of hypertension presents with a severe headache and altered mental status. Aneurysmal coiling was performed. The image shows a post-operative angiogram. 6 hours later, she develops a fever of 38.5°C and worsening confusion. What is the MOST appropriate next step?

A 65-year-old man undergoes successful coil embolization of a ruptured anterior communicating artery aneurysm. Two days post-procedure, he develops a temperature of 38.1°C, generalized malaise, and a headache unresponsive to paracetamol. Neurological exam is unchanged from baseline. CRP is 45 mg/L (normal <5). Which of the following is the most likely cause of his current symptoms?

A 68-year-old woman with a history of hypertension presents with a severe headache and altered mental status. Aneurysmal coiling was performed. The image shows a post-operative angiogram. 6 hours later, the patient's GCS decreases. What is the MOST likely cause?

A 68-year-old presents with worsening headaches post-aneurysm coiling. The image shows a follow-up angiogram. What is the MOST appropriate next step?

A 55-year-old female presents with new onset right homonymous hemianopia 3 months post-aneurysm coiling. Review the image. What is the MOST likely cause?

A 72-year-old male with a history of hypertension presents with a sudden onset of right-sided weakness and expressive aphasia. He underwent endovascular coiling for a PCA aneurysm 1 year ago. The attached image was obtained. What is the MOST likely cause of his current presentation?

A 55-year-old patient presented with a subarachnoid haemorrhage from a ruptured cerebral aneurysm, which was successfully treated with endovascular coiling. They have made a good recovery. The image shows a routine follow-up angiogram performed 6 months post-procedure. Based on the findings demonstrated in the image, what is the MOST appropriate next step in this patient's management?

A 60-year-old female with a history of a posterior cerebral artery aneurysm presents for routine follow-up. Review the image. What is the MOST appropriate management?

A 72-year-old male with a history of atrial fibrillation and well-controlled hypertension presents with acute onset expressive aphasia and right-sided facial droop. A CT angiogram reveals a posterior cerebral artery aneurysm, which was promptly treated with endovascular coiling. The provided image shows the post-operative angiogram. Despite the intervention, the patient's aphasia persists, and the facial droop has worsened. What is the MOST likely cause of the patient's continued and worsening symptoms?

A 55-year-old patient presents with a subarachnoid haemorrhage from a ruptured posterior cerebral artery aneurysm. Endovascular coiling is performed without immediate complications. The image shows the post-procedure angiogram obtained before leaving the angiography suite. Based on this finding, what is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A 68-year-old woman with a history of hypertension presents with a severe headache and altered mental status. Aneurysmal subarachnoid hemorrhage is confirmed. The aneurysm was coiled. The image shows a post-operative angiogram. 6 hours later, the patient's GCS decreases. What is the MOST likely cause?