hyperlipidemia

A 55-year-old man, non-smoker, presents for a health check. BP 135/85 mmHg, total cholesterol 5.5 mmol/L, HDL 1.2 mmol/L. No personal history of CVD or diabetes. Family history of premature CVD in father. BMI 28. Based on Australian guidelines, what is the most appropriate initial management step?

A 52-year-old woman with a 10-year history of type 2 diabetes mellitus presents to your clinic for a routine follow-up. She has been experiencing difficulty in controlling her blood glucose levels despite being on metformin and glipizide. Her HbA1c is 8.5%. She has a BMI of 32 kg/m² and a sedentary lifestyle. She reports consuming a diet high in processed foods and sugary beverages. Her blood pressure is 140/85 mmHg, and her lipid profile shows elevated LDL cholesterol. Which of the following dietary and lifestyle modifications is most likely to improve her glycemic control and overall cardiovascular risk profile?

A 72-year-old male with a history of smoking and hyperlipidemia presents for a health check. He is asymptomatic. A contrast-enhanced CT abdomen is performed as part of a screening protocol. An axial view is shown. Besides optimizing medical management, what is the MOST appropriate next step?

A 72-year-old male with a history of hypertension and hyperlipidemia presents for a routine follow-up. He is asymptomatic. A contrast-enhanced CT scan of the abdomen was performed as part of a screening protocol. An axial view is shown. What is the MOST appropriate next step?

A 72-year-old male presents to his general practitioner for a routine check-up. He reports a history of hypertension, hyperlipidemia, and a 40-pack-year smoking history. He denies any abdominal pain, back pain, or lower extremity claudication. On physical examination, his vital signs are within normal limits. Auscultation of the abdomen is unremarkable, and peripheral pulses are palpable and symmetric. As part of his cardiovascular risk assessment, a contrast-enhanced CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis is performed. An axial view from the scan is shown. Based on the image and the patient's clinical presentation, which of the following is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A 68-year-old male presents to the emergency department complaining of new onset left flank pain radiating to his groin. He reports a history of hypertension and hyperlipidemia, both managed with medications. He denies any recent trauma. His vital signs are stable: blood pressure 130/80 mmHg, heart rate 88 bpm, respiratory rate 16 breaths/min, and oxygen saturation 98% on room air. Physical examination reveals mild tenderness to palpation in the left flank, but no guarding or rebound tenderness. Peripheral pulses are normal and symmetric. A contrast-enhanced CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis is performed, the axial view is shown. Given the clinical context and the findings on the image, which of the following is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A 68-year-old male presents for routine follow-up. He is asymptomatic. His past medical history includes hypertension and hyperlipidemia, both well-controlled with medication. Review the provided image. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

A 70-year-old man with a history of hypertension and hyperlipidemia presents to the emergency department with sudden onset, severe chest pain radiating to his back. He is diaphoretic and anxious. His blood pressure is 90/60 mmHg. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

A 62-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with a 2-day history of right upper quadrant abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting. She reports that the pain started gradually but has become increasingly severe and constant. She denies any fever or chills. Her past medical history is significant for hypertension and hyperlipidemia, both well-controlled with medications. On physical examination, she is afebrile, with a heart rate of 92 bpm, blood pressure of 140/85 mmHg, and an oxygen saturation of 98% on room air. Abdominal examination reveals marked tenderness to palpation in the right upper quadrant with guarding. Murphy's sign is positive. The provided image was obtained. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

A 68-year-old woman with a history of hypertension and hyperlipidemia presents to the emergency department with a sudden onset of left-sided hemianopia and mild right-sided weakness. Her symptoms began approximately 4 hours prior to arrival. Initial neurological examination reveals intact language function and no cognitive deficits. A CT angiogram was performed, followed by endovascular coiling. The provided image shows a post-operative angiogram. Despite the intervention, the patient's hemianopia persists, and her weakness has slightly worsened. What is the MOST appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

A 62-year-old woman presents for her routine screening mammogram. She reports no breast symptoms, and physical examination is unremarkable. Her medical history includes well-controlled type 2 diabetes and hyperlipidaemia. She has no family history of breast cancer. The provided image is a magnified view from the craniocaudal projection of the right breast. Considering the clinical context and the findings demonstrated, what is the most appropriate immediate next step in the management of this patient?

A 58-year-old male presents to the emergency department complaining of right groin pain that started approximately 6 hours ago. He reports noticing a bulge in his groin for several months, which he could usually push back in. However, today he is unable to reduce it, and the pain has become progressively severe. He denies any fever, nausea, or vomiting. His past medical history includes hypertension and hyperlipidemia, both well-controlled with medications. On examination, his vital signs are stable: blood pressure 130/80 mmHg, heart rate 80 bpm, respiratory rate 16 bpm, and temperature 37.0°C. Abdominal examination is benign. Examination of the groin reveals the finding shown in the image. The area is tender to palpation. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

A 72-year-old male with a history of hypertension and hyperlipidemia presents for a routine follow-up. He is asymptomatic. A contrast-enhanced CT abdomen, axial view shown, was performed as part of a screening protocol. What is the MOST appropriate next step?

A 72-year-old man with a history of hypertension and hyperlipidemia presents for a routine health check. He is asymptomatic. A contrast-enhanced CT abdomen is performed, axial view shown. Besides optimizing medical management, what is the MOST appropriate next step?

A 52-year-old woman presents to her general practitioner with fatigue, increased thirst, and frequent urination over the past three months. She has a history of hypertension and hyperlipidemia, for which she takes lisinopril and atorvastatin. Her BMI is 32 kg/m². On examination, her blood pressure is 140/85 mmHg, and her heart rate is 78 bpm. Laboratory tests reveal a fasting plasma glucose of 8.5 mmol/L and an HbA1c of 7.2%. She is diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial management step for this patient according to Australian guidelines?

A 68-year-old woman with a history of hypertension and hyperlipidemia presents to the emergency department with a sudden onset of left-sided hemianopia and mild right-sided weakness. Her symptoms began approximately 4 hours prior to arrival. Initial neurological examination reveals intact language function and no cognitive deficits. A CT angiogram was performed, followed by endovascular coiling. The provided image shows a post-operative angiogram. Despite the intervention, the patient's hemianopia persists, and her weakness has slightly worsened. What is the MOST appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

A 62-year-old woman with a 15-year history of type 2 diabetes mellitus presents to her general practitioner with complaints of worsening vision over the past six months. She also reports intermittent tingling and numbness in her feet, which has been progressively worsening. Her diabetes has been poorly controlled, with recent HbA1c levels consistently above 9%. She has a history of hypertension and hyperlipidemia, both of which are managed with medication. On examination, her blood pressure is 140/85 mmHg, and her BMI is 32 kg/m². Fundoscopic examination reveals microaneurysms and cotton wool spots. Urinalysis shows microalbuminuria. Which of the following interventions is most likely to address the underlying pathophysiological mechanism of her visual symptoms?

A 72-year-old man presents to the emergency department with confusion and difficulty walking. His family reports that he has been increasingly forgetful over the past few months and has had several falls. He has a history of hypertension and hyperlipidemia, for which he takes lisinopril and atorvastatin. On examination, he is disoriented to time and place, with a blood pressure of 140/85 mmHg, heart rate of 78 bpm, and a wide-based gait. Neurological examination reveals brisk reflexes and a positive Romberg sign. A CT scan of the head shows mild cortical atrophy but no acute lesions. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

A 52-year-old woman presents to her general practitioner with fatigue, increased thirst, and frequent urination over the past three months. She has a history of hypertension and hyperlipidemia, managed with lisinopril and atorvastatin. Her BMI is 32 kg/m². On examination, her blood pressure is 140/85 mmHg, and her heart rate is 78 bpm. Laboratory tests reveal a fasting plasma glucose of 8.5 mmol/L and an HbA1c of 7.2%. She is concerned about her risk of complications and asks about the best initial management strategy. Considering Australian guidelines, what is the most appropriate next step in managing her condition?

A 68-year-old woman with a history of hypertension and hyperlipidemia presents to the emergency department with a sudden onset of left-sided hemianopia and mild right-sided weakness. Her symptoms began approximately 4 hours prior to arrival. Initial neurological examination reveals a left homonymous hemianopia, mild right hemiparesis (4/5 strength), and intact sensation. A CT angiogram was performed, and the patient underwent endovascular coiling. The image shows a follow-up angiogram post-procedure. Despite the intervention, the patient's left homonymous hemianopia persists, and her right hemiparesis has not improved. What is the MOST appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

A 72-year-old man with a history of hypertension, hyperlipidemia, and type 2 diabetes mellitus presents to the emergency department complaining of exertional chest pain that has been increasing in frequency and severity over the past month. He describes the pain as a pressure-like sensation in the center of his chest, radiating to his left arm, and associated with shortness of breath. The pain typically occurs after walking two blocks and resolves with rest. He denies any recent changes in his medications or lifestyle. On examination, his blood pressure is 150/90 mmHg, heart rate is 78 bpm, and oxygen saturation is 96% on room air. An ECG shows normal sinus rhythm with no acute ST-segment changes. Troponin levels are within normal limits. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

A 45-year-old male presents to the emergency department with severe chest pain radiating to his left arm, shortness of breath, and diaphoresis. He has a history of hypertension and hyperlipidemia. On examination, he is diaphoretic, and his blood pressure is 90/60 mmHg. An ECG shows ST-segment elevation in leads II, III, and aVF. What is the most appropriate initial management for this patient?