Practice targeted AMC-style multiple-choice questions on orthopedics.
A 25-year-old man presents to the emergency department with sudden onset of severe testicular pain on the right side. He reports no trauma or previous episodes. On examination, the right testis is swollen, tender, and lies higher in the scrotum compared to the left. The cremasteric reflex is absent on the affected side. What is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
A 65-year-old man with a Popeye deformity has persistent pain and weakness despite conservative management. What is the next step?
A 60-year-old man with a Popeye deformity has no pain but reports mild weakness in supination. What is the most appropriate management?
A 45-year-old weightlifter presents with sudden pain and a bulge in his arm after lifting a heavy weight. On examination, there is a Popeye deformity. What is the most likely mechanism of injury?
A 31-year-old man presents with gradual onset lateral knee pain that worsens with running and has no history of trauma. The pain is localized above the joint line, and there is no swelling. What is the likely diagnosis?
A 31-year-old man presents with gradual onset lateral knee pain that worsens with running. There is no history of trauma. The pain is localized above the joint line, and there is no swelling. What is the likely diagnosis?
A 70-year-old man presents with a vertebral fracture after a minor fall. Reviewing risk factors for osteoporosis, which of the following is the most likely risk factor?
A 50-year-old man presents with a deformity of his right arm. On examination, there is a bulge in the mid-arm, and the shoulder appears flattened. He reports weakness when flexing his elbow. What is the most likely diagnosis?