postmenopausal

A 70-year-old woman, post-mastectomy, presents with a chronic, pruritic lesion. What is the MOST likely underlying pathophysiology?

A 62-year-old postmenopausal woman presents to her general practitioner with complaints of severe hot flashes that significantly affect her quality of life. She has a history of breast cancer diagnosed three years ago, which was treated with surgery and chemotherapy. Her cancer was estrogen receptor-positive. She is currently on tamoxifen as part of her ongoing treatment. She is concerned about the use of hormone replacement therapy due to her cancer history. What is the most appropriate management option for her hot flashes?

A 62-year-old woman undergoes routine screening mammography. She is asymptomatic with no relevant family history of breast cancer. Physical examination is unremarkable. The provided image is a detail from her mammogram. Based on the findings demonstrated in the image, what is the most appropriate immediate next step in the management of this patient?

A 50-year-old woman presents with a newly discovered, firm, mobile lump in her left breast, approximately 2 cm in size. She has no family history of breast cancer. She is post-menopausal. On examination, the lump is palpable in the upper outer quadrant, appears well-defined, and is non-tender. There are no skin changes or nipple discharge. Axillary nodes are not palpable. Considering the Australian guidelines for breast lump assessment, which of the following is the most appropriate initial investigation?